More on why Bell's Theorem is bunk

Bell's theorem utilizes mathematical sleight of hand to "prove" its point.  It uses probabilities to describe the "real" inequality, but the square roots of probabilities to describe the "quantum" equation.

Reference the Wikipedia article.  This is the inequality for "real" locality.

These are probabilities, each of which has a value of +1 or -1, so at most 1+1+1-1 = 2.  Seems straight forward so far.

Then the theorem goes on to derive the quantum formula for the same system.

This looks legit, except for one problem.  The 1/√2 is not a probability, but the square root of a probability.  (In QM, the coefficients are squared to get rid of imaginary numbers, and these squares add up to 1.)  So when we square them to get the actual probability, we get 1/2 for each.  1/2 + 1/2 + 1/2 - 1/2 = 1, which is less than 2.

How has this glaring error gone unnoticed for decades?

The "proof" for the three test system is even dumber.  It sets up a two state system with three possible inputs, for a total of 9 possibilities, then goes on to show that once you remove four possibilities, the remaining 5 cannot be evenly divided by two.  It's utter twaddle.They are always opposites, but only when measured on the same axis. 

Create two measuring systems, each with three axes spaced evenly about the center.  Test A in one and B in the other.  If you measure both A and B along axis 1, they will be true and false (or false and true).

If you measure A on axis 1 and find it to be true, what is the chance that B will be true on axis 2?  Axis 3?  50% each, obviously, since they are both evenly spaced from axis 1 and each other, and B must be true in some axis other than 1.

Creating a "test" that ignores the probabilities of events and only counts possible outcomes is silly, not to mention disingenuous.